The Law: Binding?
Gentlemen,
Though I am fully aware of the academic demands which accompany the closing weeks of the semester, I simply could not resist throwing this question out for your discussion: How is the Christian believer, justified by grace through faith, to relate to the Old Testament Law?
Is the Mosaic Law binding on the believer, or are we simply under pure grace? If we are indeed "under law" in some sense, then how does this relate to salvation by faith in Christ?
I'm sure Ben and I will answer this question similarly, but I think that this will encourage some hard, fruitful dialogue. I encourage you to examine the Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter XIX, for an excellent theology of the Christian and the Law.
posted by Anonymous at 8:50 PM
6 Comments:
Charlie, my apologies if I've overstepped my bounds, but I confess that I am responsible for taking down your previous post. Truth be told, that guy's face freaked me out and I do not think that my "chi" would be properly balanced if I had to experience that negative ora any longer.
Shalom.
That's it. I'm quitting this blog.
Well since no one else has stuck their finger into the oven, here I go.
My first question is what exactly do we mean by the term "binding?" If we are going live our lives by the 10 Commandments, we are attempting to do what the Jews did. Jesus expanded on the notion of the 10C's by saying, "you have heard it said, 'do not murder,' I tell you that even if you hate your brother you have murdered.'" (Charlie Wallace paraphrase)
He also did this for adultery/lust and commandment that presntly slips my mind. What are we to think of that?
The purpose of the "moral law," as contained in the Ten Commandments is not to earn salvation through it, which the Westminster Confession calls "a covenant of works." Its purpose, as outlined in Galatians 2 is to make us aware of the sin which already lies within our hearts, and forcing us to cry out to God for mercy. Then grace rescues us.
It is very interesting to note that in Romans 7:22, Paul notes that "I delight in the law of God." The Law is not to be something that we distain, but is actually an instrument of grace from a merciful God who is determined to reveal our sin so that we might cry out to Him alone for salvation. Therefore, the Mosaic covenant (i.e. the Law) is not contrary to the Reformed understaning of the overarching Covenant of Grace, but is truly a further unfolding of it in redemptive history.
This is far too brief of an examination to prove this issue decisively, but my goal is to demonstrate that the Moral Law (Ten Commandments) is indeed still in effect for believers, unlike the civil or ceremonial laws. Furthermore, their purpose has not changed in the New Covenant than when they were given to Israel at Sinai: They were never meant to be used as an instrument which to gain righteousness before God by our own works. This is the fatal error of Israel: they misunderstood the meaning of the Law. Rather, the 10 Commandments are an instrument of marvelous grace. God is truly kind in convincing me of the depravity of my own heart. Praise Him for His kindness!
"Its purpose, as outlined in Galatians 2 is to make us aware of the sin which already lies within our hearts, and forcing us to cry out to God for mercy. Then grace rescues us."
I agree with that and the other statements, however, I'm still struggling with the term, "binding." What would it look like practically for someone to live where one believed that the 10 Commandments were not binding?
The most extreme implication of not holding to the "binding" (sorry, I can't think of a better word yet) would be blatant antinomianism.
Probably the most common form of disregard for the 10 Commandments would be the use of images of God or Christ in worship or at home (a whole other can of worms!), or rejecting the idea of Sabbath observance for Christians.
Ben, feel free to jump in here anytime. I'm interested to get your thoughts on this one.
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